A Dec. 13 article in Fortune called the polio vaccine “not only safe but also effective” and claimed that “20 million people who would’ve otherwise been paralyzed by polio are walking today.”
I was one of a number of children in my hometown who contracted polio FROM the polio vaccine in the 1950's. Fortunately it was a mild case, but still concerning.
In 1963 I had a documented case of rubella, but in 1984 a blood test showed "inadequate" titer levels and I was forced to take the rubella vaccine for my job. 2 days later I went home from work on Friday afternoon and was awakened by a phone call at 10 a.m. Monday. I had been unconscious all weekend, was lying across my bed still in Friday's clothes. I had rubella, with high fever, rash and swollen lymph nodes.
Ask me if I would ever accept another vaccine or subject a child to that.
I think your math is off here, or perhaps there's just significant context missing?
The quote: "Rapid onset of asymmetric acute flaccid paralysis occurs in 0.1% to 2% of infections, and residual paralytic disease involving motor neurons (paralytic poliomyelitis) occurs in approximately 1 per 1,000 infections" does not justify the conclusion: "according to the FDA, the risk of becoming paralyzed as a result of a poliovirus infection is roughly 0.001%".
1 per 1,000 infections is 0.1% and from the quote presented, it can only be understood to mean 1 per 1,000 overall infections - not any subset of infections.
Given the falsified reliance on CPE, and no gold standard in genetic testing, please provide the cited methodology that is held up to demonstrate the existence of a pathological, contagious, self-replicating intracellular parasite?
If you repeat a lie often enough, it becomes fact-checking!
You can say, any Vaccine that does not cause Sterilizing Immunity, does not prevent infection of transmission.
That does not say much.
Has there ever been such a Vaccine?
I was one of a number of children in my hometown who contracted polio FROM the polio vaccine in the 1950's. Fortunately it was a mild case, but still concerning.
In 1963 I had a documented case of rubella, but in 1984 a blood test showed "inadequate" titer levels and I was forced to take the rubella vaccine for my job. 2 days later I went home from work on Friday afternoon and was awakened by a phone call at 10 a.m. Monday. I had been unconscious all weekend, was lying across my bed still in Friday's clothes. I had rubella, with high fever, rash and swollen lymph nodes.
Ask me if I would ever accept another vaccine or subject a child to that.
My open letter to ICAN, Aaron, Del, Bobby about Polio vaxxes:
https://welcometheeagle.substack.com/p/siriican-polio-petition-does-it-go
Jab to the motherfucking slab!
I think your math is off here, or perhaps there's just significant context missing?
The quote: "Rapid onset of asymmetric acute flaccid paralysis occurs in 0.1% to 2% of infections, and residual paralytic disease involving motor neurons (paralytic poliomyelitis) occurs in approximately 1 per 1,000 infections" does not justify the conclusion: "according to the FDA, the risk of becoming paralyzed as a result of a poliovirus infection is roughly 0.001%".
1 per 1,000 infections is 0.1% and from the quote presented, it can only be understood to mean 1 per 1,000 overall infections - not any subset of infections.
Hope this helps.
https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/26983730/
Given the falsified reliance on CPE, and no gold standard in genetic testing, please provide the cited methodology that is held up to demonstrate the existence of a pathological, contagious, self-replicating intracellular parasite?